Is it occupational
equality between men and women something real in Spain?
It has only been eighty-three years since women
are allowed to cast their votes in Spain within a social environment mostly
ruled by men. Back then, not only had
women to devote their lives to their families and put aside their life
expectations but they also had to put up with rules based on females’
subjection. Working out was not well seen for them in a country where men used
to be the breadwinners.
Fortunately, that tendency appeared to come to
an end, especially from the end of the dictatorship in 1975. Windows were
suddenly opened and a fresh breeze of freedom could be breathed. A new flourishing generation of women was studying
in the University at that time, ready to be immersed in the job market claiming
for the space that had been denied to them after having been fighting for it
for long years. Changes were coming, but
not at the rate that women expected.
Admittedly, there have been many changes in
recent years. These day and age women have access to relevant positions in the
Spanish government and local and national institutions taking important
decisions, but this is not coming about in private companies where the windows
that once were opened have turned out to be only an ajar door. The real deal is
that there are no many women in charge of the companies which made up the IBEX
35 and it seems to be that things might not change in the foreseeable future.
Be that as it may, I strongly believe that it
is high time we all thought about a shift in attitude and mentality towards the
role of women in the society. They, as well as men, are well educated and ready
to assume responsibilities in companies. Our society neither could be called
modern nor fair till all its members have equal job opportunities so, what are
we waiting for?
Vicent
Is [] occupational equality between men and women something real in Spain?
ReplyDeleteIt has only been eighty-three years since women WEre allowed to cast their votes in Spain within a social environment mostly ruled by men. Back then, not only had(1) women to devote their lives to their families and put aside their life expectations, but they also had to put up with rules based on females’ subjection. Working outSIDE THE HOME was not well VIEWED for them in a country where men used to be the breadwinners*.
Fortunately, that tendency appeared to come to an end, especially SINCE the end of the dictatorship in 1975. Windows were suddenly opened and a (fresh breeze)* of freedom could be breathed. A new flourishing generation of women was studying in the [u]niversity at that time, ready to be immersed in the job market claiming [] the space that had been denied to them after having [] fOUght for it for long years. Changes were coming, but not at the rate that women expected.
Admittedly, there have been many changes in recent years. IN thIS day and age women have access to IMPORTANT/SIGNIFICANT/POWERFUL positions in the Spanish government and local and national institutions taking important decisions, but this is not coming about in private companies where the windows that once were opened have turned out to be only an ajar door. The realITY [] is that there are noT many women in charge of the companies which maKe up the IBEX 35 and it seems to be that things might not change in the foreseeable future.
Be that as it may, I strongly believe that it is (high time)* we all thought about a shift* in attitude and mentality towards the role of women in [] society. They, as well as men, are well educated and ready to assume responsibilities in companies. Our society could be called NEITHER modern nor fair till all its members have equal job opportunities so, what are we waiting for?
(1) good job putting "had" in front of "women" here
*good word choice
Really well done. This is excellent English.
Really helpful Matt. That is what is happening in Spain. An still young democracy where lots of words are said on this topic but little is done. Thank you.
ReplyDeleteLet me ask
ReplyDelete(1) Why "had women" instead of "women had"?
why "ajar door" instead of "door ajar"?
After some negative phrases like "not only", "nor", and "neither", we put the first verb at the beginning. I suppose it is because the negative phrase is modifying the verb. It's different in "Not only men do stupid things.", where the "not only" attaches to "men".
ReplyDelete"Ajar" is the adjective so it comes first. But you're right that the reverse order is quite common as in "She left the door ajar."
Thanks Matt, I've learned in this entry
ReplyDelete